How does the updated Nutri-Score discriminate and classify the nutritional quality of foods in a Norwegian setting?

BACKGROUND: The Nutri-Score is a candidate for the harmonized mandatory front-of-pack nutrition label enabling consumers in the European Union to make healthier food choices. Nutri-Score classifies foods (including beverages) from A (high nutritional quality) to E (low nutritional quality) based on the foods' qualifying and disqualifying components. We aimed to evaluate the updated Nutri-Score for foods (2022) and beverages (2023) in a Norwegian setting by exploring its ability to discriminate the nutritional quality of foods within categories. Additionally, we assessed Nutri-Scores' ability to classify foods in accordance with the Norwegian food-based dietary guidelines (FBDGs). METHODS: The updated Nutri-Score was calculated for 1,782 foods in a Norwegian food database. The discriminatory ability of the updated Nutri-Score was considered by exploring the distribution of Nutri-Score within categories of foods using boxplots and frequency tables, and by examining which qualifying and disqualifying components that contributed most to the Nutri-Score class. Accordance with the Norwegian FBDGs was assessed by exploring Nutri-Score for foods specifically mentioned in the guidelines. RESULTS: Overall, the updated Nutri-Score seemed to discriminate the nutritional quality of foods within categories, in a Norwegian setting. The foods' content of salt and the beverages' content of sugar were components contributing the most to Nutri-Scores' discriminatory ability. Furthermore, in most cases the updated Nutri-Score classified foods in accordance with the Norwegian FBDGs. However, there were minor inconsistencies in how Nutri-Score classified certain foods, such as the inabilities to discriminate between full-fat and low-fat/leaner cheeses, cremes and processed meats (sausages), and between whole grain and refined pasta/rice. CONCLUSIONS: We observed an overall acceptable discriminatory performance of the updated Nutri-Score in a Norwegian setting and in most cases the updated Nutri-Score classified foods in accordance with the Norwegian FBDGs. However, minor inconsistencies were observed. Together with the FBDGs, the updated Nutri-Score could be a useful tool in guiding consumers towards healthier food choices in Norway, but consumer evaluations are warranted to fully assess the performance of the updated Nutri-Score in a Norwegian context.

Prenatal cardiac biometry and flow assessment in fetuses with bicuspid aortic valve at 20 weeks' gestation: multicenter cohort study.

OBJECTIVE: To investigate prenatal changes in cardiac biometric and flow parameters in fetuses with bicuspid aortic valve (BAV) diagnosed neonatally compared with controls with normal cardiac anatomy. METHODS: This analysis was conducted as part of the Copenhagen Baby Heart Study, a multicenter cohort study of 25 556 neonates that underwent second-trimester anomaly scan at 18 + 0 to 22 + 6 weeks' gestation and neonatal echocardiography within 4 weeks after birth, in Copenhagen University Hospital Herlev, Hvidovre Hospital and Rigshospitalet in greater Copenhagen, between April 2016 and October 2018. From February 2017 (Rigshospitalet) and September 2017 (Herlev and Hvidovre hospitals), the protocol for second-trimester screening of the heart was extended to include evaluation of the four-chamber view, with assessment of flow across the atrioventricular valves, sagittal view of the aortic arch and midumbilical artery and ductus venosus pulsatility indices. All images were evaluated by two investigators, and cardiac biometric and flow parameters were measured and compared between cases with BAV and controls. All cases with neonatal BAV were assessed by a specialist. Maternal characteristics and first- and second-trimester biomarkers were also compared between the two groups. RESULTS: Fifty-five infants with BAV and 8316 controls with normal cardiac anatomy were identified during the study period and assessed using the extended prenatal cardiac imaging protocol. There were three times as many mothers who smoked before pregnancy in the group with BAV as in the control group (9.1% vs 2.7%; P = 0.003). All other baseline characteristics were similar between the two groups. Fetuses with BAV, compared with controls, had a significantly larger diameter of the aorta at the level of the aortic valve (3.1 mm vs 3.0 mm (mean difference, 0.12 mm (95% CI, 0.03-0.21 mm))) and the pulmonary artery at the level of the pulmonary valve (4.1 mm vs 3.9 mm (mean difference, 0.15 mm (95% CI, 0.03-0.28 mm))). Following conversion of the diameter measurements of the aorta and pulmonary artery to Z-scores and Bonferroni correction, the differences between the two groups were no longer statistically significant. Pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A) multiples of the median (MoM) was significantly lower in the BAV group than in the control group (0.85 vs 1.03; P = 0.04). CONCLUSIONS: Our findings suggest that fetuses with BAV may have a larger aortic diameter at the level of the aortic valve, measured in the left-ventricular-outflow-tract view, and a larger pulmonary artery diameter at the level of the pulmonary valve, measured in the three-vessel view, at 20 weeks' gestation. Moreover, we found an association of maternal smoking and low PAPP-A MoM with BAV. © 2021 International Society of Ultrasound in Obstetrics and Gynecology.

Infective endocarditis in patients who have undergone transcatheter aortic valve implantation: a review.

BACKGROUND: Transcatheter aortic valve implantation (TAVI) has been approved for the treatment of severe aortic stenosis since 2008 and recent trials have shown that TAVI is at least non-inferior to surgical aortic valve replacement (SAVR) with regards to short-term efficacy and safety in patients across all surgical risk profiles. Prosthetic valve endocarditis of the transcatheter heart valve is a feared complication; data on the risk of infective endocarditis (IE) subsequent to TAVI are now gradually emerging. OBJECTIVES: We set forth to conduct a review of the incidence, diagnosis, microbial aetiologies, prevention, outcome and management of TAVI-IE. SOURCES: From the MEDLINE database we included a total of 12 observational studies and five studies of long-term results from randomized controlled trials. CONTENT: The incidence of TAVI-IE was reported to be between 0.7% and 3.0% per person-year. The most common microbes were reported to be enterococci, Staphylococcus aureus, streptococci and coagulase-negative staphylococci. International guidelines on prevention strategies of IE recommend good sanitary conditions including cutaneous care, good oral hygiene and good care of dialysis catheters. Antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended by guidelines prior to dental procedures in patients with TAVI; however, evidence is sparse. The majority of the patients included in this review with TAVI-IE had an indication for surgical intervention due to IE (50.0% or more); however, only a small subset of the patients underwent surgery (16.4% or less). The in-hospital mortality was around 25%, i.e. of the same order of magnitude as in prosthetic valve IE in general, but varied substantially between studies (from 11% to 64%). IMPLICATIONS: The US Food and Drug Administration's approval of TAVI in patients at low surgical risk may change the characteristics of patients with TAVI, which may influence the incidence, management, and outcome of patients with TAVI-IE.

Wholegrain rye, but not wholegrain wheat, lowers body weight and fat mass compared with refined wheat: a 6-week randomized study.

BACKGROUND: Observational studies suggest inverse associations between wholegrain intake and body weight gain. Only few controlled intervention studies have supported this association and few compare effects of different grain varieties. OBJECTIVE: To investigate how wholegrain wheat (WGW) and rye compared with refined wheat (RW) affect body weight and composition and appetite sensation. DESIGN: Seventy overweight/obese adults participated in this 6-week randomized parallel study, in which they replaced their habitual cereal foods with RW, WGW or wholegrain rye (WGR). Further, a 4 h postprandial test meal challenge was completed with meals corresponding to diet allocation in the beginning and after the intervention. Body weight and composition, fasted blood samples, compliance and 4-day dietary intake were obtained before and after the intervention period. Appetite and breath hydrogen excretion was assessed during the postprandial test meal challenge. RESULTS: Diet allocation affected body weight significantly (P=0.013) and tended also to affect fat mass (P=0.065). Both body weight and fat mass decreased more in the WGR group (-1.06±1.60 and -0.75±1.29 kg, respectively) compared with the RW group (+0.15±1.28 and -0.04±0.82 kg, respectively; P<0.01 and P<0.05, respectively). Further, the decrease in fat mass in the WGR group tended to exceed that in the WGW group (P=0.07). Overall, no effect of diet on appetite sensation was observed; however, energy intake from study products was ~200 kcal lower in the WGR group when compared with that in the RW group (P<0.05), although total energy intake did not differ between groups. CONCLUSIONS: Our results support a role for WGR foods in body weight regulation, when provided ad libitum. The effect may be mediated by satiation reflected in a reduction in energy intake, mainly from the wholegrain products without compensation in other parts of the diets, despite no difference in appetite.

Association between left ventricular global longitudinal strain and natriuretic peptides in outpatients with chronic systolic heart failure.

BACKGROUND: Both impaired left ventricular (LV) global longitudinal strain (GLS) and increased plasma concentrations of natriuretic peptides(NP) are associated with a poor outcome in heart failure (HF). Increased levels of NP reflect increased wall stress of the LV. However, little is known about the relationship between LV GLS and NP. This aim of this study was to evaluate the relationship between the echocardiographic measure LV GLS and plasma levels of NP. METHODS: We prospectively included 149 patients with verified systolic HF at the baseline visit in an outpatient HF clinic. LV GLS was assessed by two dimension speckle tracking and plasma concentrations of N-terminal-pro-brain-natriuretic-peptide (NT-proBNP) and pro-atrial-natriuretic-peptide (proANP) were analysed. RESULTS: The patients had a median age of 70 years, 28.2 % were females, 26.5 % were in functional class III-IV, median left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) was 33 % and median LV GLS was -11 %. LV GLS was associated with increased plasma concentrations of NT-proBNP and proANP in multivariate logistic regression (NT-proBNP: Odds RatioGLS: 7.25, 95 %-CI: 2.48-21.1, P < 0.001 and proANP: Odds RatioGLS: 3.26, 95-%-CI: 1.28-8.30, P = 0.013) and linear regression (NT-proBNP: ßGLS: 1.19, 95 %-CI: 0.62-1.76, P < 0.001 and proANP: ßGLS: 0.42, 95-%-CI: 0.11-0.72, P = 0.007) models after adjustment for traditional confounders (age, gender, body-mass-index, atrial fibrillation, renal function) and left atrial volume index. CONCLUSION: Impaired LV GLS is associated with increased plasma concentrations of NP and our data suggest that left ventricular myocardial mechanics estimated by LV GLS reflects myocardial wall stress in chronic systolic HF.

Pentraxin-3 level at admission is a strong predictor of short-term mortality in a community-based hospital setting.

BACKGROUND: The pattern recognition molecule pentraxin-3 (PTX3) is a novel potential marker of prognosis, as elevated levels are associated with both disease severity and mortality in patients with a wide range of conditions. However, the usefulness of PTX3 as a prognostic biomarker in a general hospital setting is unknown. PATIENTS AND METHODS: The study cohort consisted of 1326 unselected, consecutive patients (age >40 years) admitted to a community hospital in Copenhagen, Denmark. Patients were followed until death or for a median of 11.5 years after admission. The main outcome measure was all-cause mortality. Serum samples collected from patients at admission and from 192 healthy control subjects were quantified for PTX3 level by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. RESULTS: PTX3 was elevated in patients (median 3.7 ng mL(-1) , range 0.5-209.8) compared with healthy nonhospitalized subjects (median 3.5 ng mL(-1) , range 0.0-8.3; P = 0.0003). Elevated PTX3 levels, defined as above the 95th percentile of the concentration in healthy subjects, were associated with increased overall mortality during the study (P < 0.0001). This increase in mortality was greatest in the short term, with an unadjusted hazard ratio (HR) of 6.4 [95% confidence interval (CI) 3.8-11.0] at 28 days after admission, compared to 1.7 (95% CI 1.4-2.0) at the end of follow-up. These results were still significant after adjustment for age, gender and glomerular filtration rate: adjusted HR of 5.0 (95% CI 2.9-8.8) and 1.4 (95% CI 1.2-1.8), respectively. CONCLUSION: These results suggest that PTX3 could be a widely applicable marker of short-term mortality in hospitalized patients and may be useful in the initial risk stratification.

Hyponatraemia at hospital admission is a predictor of overall mortality.

BACKGROUND: Hyponatraemia is a prognostic marker of increased mortality and morbidity in selected groups of hospitalised patients. The aim of the present study was to examine the prevalence and prognostic significance of hyponatraemia at hospital admission in an unselected population with a broad spectrum of medical and surgical diagnoses. METHODS: Consecutive patients >40 years of age admitted to a general district hospital in Greater Copenhagen between 1 April 1998 and 31 March 1999. Median follow-up time was 5.16 years (range 0-4372 days). Plasma sodium measurements were available in 2960 patients, and hyponatraemia defined as P-Na(+) <137 mmol/L at hospital admission was present in 1105 (37.3 %) patients. RESULTS: One-year mortality was higher for hyponatraemic patients than for normonatraemic patients: 27.5% versus 17.7%. Moreover, hyponatraemia was an independent predictor of short and long-term all-cause mortality after 1 year and after the entire observation period respectively: hazard ratio (HR) 1.6 (95 % confidence interval (CI) 1.4-1.9, P < 0.0001) and HR 1.4 (95 % CI 1.3-1.6, P < 0.0001). Patients with hyponatraemia had longer hospitalisations than patients with normonatraemia: 7.6 (±0.38) days vs 5.6 (±0.21) days, P < 0.001. There was no interaction between hyponatraemia at admission and any admission diagnoses (P > 0.05 for all interaction analyses). CONCLUSION: Hyponatraemia is associated with increased all-cause mortality and longer admission length independently of diagnosis and clinical variables.

Non-allergic, mastocytosis-associated rhinitis.

BACKGROUND: Systemic mastocytosis (SM) is a clonal proliferative disorder of mast cells (MC) that causes pathological accumulation of mast cells in various tissues, which results in clinical symptoms (e.g. diarrhoea, urticaria) due to MC mediator release. Previous studies have shown that up to fifty percent of rhinitis symptoms in SM patients are non-allergic and it has been assumed that these nasal complaints in SM patients are due an increased nasal mast cell burden. Nevertheless, to date there are no data supporting this hypothesis. OBJECTIVE: The study aims to investigate if the presence of allergy-suggesting nasal complaints in non-allergic SM patients is correlated with objective measure of nasal mast cell burden. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Eleven adult patients with systemic mastocytosis underwent a comprehensive rhinologic work-up. All patients fulfilled the clinical ARIA criteria for rhinitis. The allergologic work-up included serological allergy testing, determination of tryptase levels (serum and nasal secretion), skin prick testing, and nasal provocation testing. RESULTS: Ten out of eleven SM patients with clinical persistent allergic rhinitis were found to be non-allergic. In these patients, the most predominant symptoms were rhinorrhea, sneezing, and itching. All three symptoms were strongly correlated with the nasal tryptase level but not to the level of serum tryptase. CONCLUSION AND CLINICAL RELEVANCE: Non-allergic persistent nasal complaints in systemic mastocytosis were significantly correlated with elevated nasal tryptase level as a measure of local MC burden. Furthermore, elevated nasal tryptase correlated with persistent rhinorrhea, sneezing, and itching as predominant symptoms, which seems to characterize a non-allergic mastocytosis-associated rhinitis (NAMAR) in systemic mastocytosis.

The inflammatory biomarker YKL-40 at admission is a strong predictor of overall mortality.

OBJECTIVES: YKL-40 is an inflammatory biomarker associated with disease activity and mortality in patients with diseases characterized by inflammation and tissue remodelling. The aim of this study was to describe the prognostic value of YKL-40 in an unselected patient population. DESIGN: In consecutive patients admitted to hospital during a 1-year period, blood was collected and information regarding final diagnosis and mortality was collected. Median follow-up time was 11.5 years. SETTING: District hospital, Copenhagen, Denmark. PATIENTS: A total of 1407 patients >40 years of age were admitted acutely. MAIN OUTCOME MEASURE: All-cause mortality. RESULTS: Median YKL-40 was increased in patients (157 µg L(-1) , range 13-7704 µg L(-1) ) compared to healthy controls (40 µg L(-1) , range 29-58 µg L(-1) ; P < 0.001). Patients with YKL-40 in the highest quartile had a hazard ratio (HR) of 7.1 [95% confidence interval (CI) 4.2-12.0] for all-cause mortality in the first year and 3.4 (95% CI 2.8-4.2) in the total study period, compared to those in the lowest quartile (HR = 1). The HR for death for all patients with YKL-40 above the normal age-corrected 95th percentile was 2.1 (95% CI 1.6-2.7) after 1 year and 1.5 (95% CI 1.3-1.7) during the total study period, compared to patients with YKL-40 below the age-corrected 95th percentile. The results of multivariable analysis showed that YKL-40 was an independent biomarker of mortality; this was most significant in the first year. YKL-40 was a marker of prognosis in all disease categories. The HR for death was increased in patients with YKL-40 above the normal age-corrected 95th percentile in healthy subjects independent of type of disease (all P < 0.001). CONCLUSION: The level of YKL-40 at admission is a strong predictor of overall mortality, independent of diagnosis and could be useful as a biomarker in the acute evaluation of all patients.

Increased urinary orosomucoid excretion: a proposed marker for inflammation and endothelial dysfunction in patients with type 2 diabetes.

OBJECTIVE: In a previous study, urinary orosomucoid excretion rate (UOER) independently predicted cardiovascular mortality in patients with type 2 diabetes. The aim of the present study was to determine whether increased UOER is associated with cardiovascular risk factors such as inflammation, impaired left ventricular function and endothelial dysfunction in patients with type 2 diabetes. MATERIAL AND METHODS: We performed a cross-sectional study of 41 patients with type 2 diabetes (17 patients with normal UOER and 24 with increased UOER) with no history of cardiovascular disease and 21 healthy controls. Urinary orosomucoid was measured using a particle-enhanced immunoturbidimetric assay. Plasma interleukin-6 (IL-6), tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) and soluble intercellular adhesion molecule-1 (sICAM) were measured using ELISA. Endothelial function measured as vasodilatory capacity of the brachial artery and echocardiography were done in all participants. RESULTS: Patients with diabetes and increased UOER had subclinically increased serum orosomucoid (p<0.001), C-reactive protein (CRP) (p<0.001), IL-6 (p<0.001), tPA (p<0.003) and sICAM (p<0.003) compared with healthy controls. In patients with type 2 diabetes, UOER was independently associated with increasing values of IL-6 (1.43 (1.06-1.93)) and tPA (1.82 (1.20-2.77)). Measurements by echocardiography showed no signs of cardiac dysfunction. CONCLUSIONS: Asymptomatic patients with type 2 diabetes and increased UOER displayed signs of chronic low-grade inflammation and endothelial dysfunction. UOER was independently related to markers of proinflammation and endothelial dysfunction in patients with type 2 diabetes. The previously shown relation between increased UOER and cardiovascular mortality is proposed to be caused by chronic low-grade inflammation and early endothelial dysfunction.

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in patients admitted with heart failure.

OBJECTIVE: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is an important differential diagnosis in patients with heart failure (HF). The primary aims were to determine the prevalence of COPD and to test the accuracy of self-reported COPD in patients admitted with HF. Secondary aims were to study a possible relationship between right and left ventricular function and pulmonary function. DESIGN: Prospective substudy. SETTING: Systematic screening at 11 centres. SUBJECTS: Consecutive patients (n = 532) admitted with HF requiring medical treatment with diuretics and an episode with symptoms corresponding to New York Heart Association class III-IV within a month prior to admission. INTERVENTIONS: Forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV(1)) and forced vital capacity (FVC) were measured by spirometry and ventricular function by echocardiography. The diagnosis of COPD and HF were made according to established criteria. RESULTS: The prevalence of COPD was 35%. Only 43% of the patients with COPD had self-reported COPD and one-third of patients with self-reported COPD did not have COPD based on spirometry. The prevalence of COPD in patients with preserved left ventricular ejection fraction (i.e. LVEF >or=45%) was significantly higher than in patients with impaired LVEF (41% vs. 31%, P = 0.03). FEV(1) and FVC were negatively correlated with right ventricular end-diastolic diameter and tricuspid annular plane systolic excursion and FVC positively correlated with systolic gradient across the tricuspid valve. CONCLUSION: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is frequent in patients admitted with HF and self-reported COPD only identifies a minority. The prevalence of COPD was high in both patients with systolic and nonsystolic HF.

Local resection of rectal tumors by transanal endoscopic microsurgery: experience with the first 70 cases.

BACKGROUND: Transanal endoscopic microsurgery (TEM) can access the whole rectum up to 20 cm from the anal verge. Due to its excellent view and accurate dissection, TEM is useful for the removal of adenoma and selected low risk cancers of the rectum. We report our experience with the first 70 patients presenting. METHODS: A prospective descriptive study of 70 patients treated for rectal tumor with TEM from December 99 until October 2002 at Haukeland University Hospital. RESULTS: TEM was performed in 37 men and 33 women, median age 70.5 (19-90) years, for anticipated adenoma (n = 64), adenocarcinoma (n = 3), rectal ulcer (n = 1), and re-resection after snare resection of rectal polyp with adenocarcinoma (n = 1) and carcinoid tumor (n = 1). The median observation time was 12 (1-33) months. The distance from the anal verge to the lower tumor border was 5.5 (2.5-14) cm. The median resected area was 15.4 (1.5-132) cm(2). 56 of the 64 anticipated adenomas were true adenoma, resected without recurrences; 8 (12.5%) were unexpected adenocarcinoma. Three of these underwent a secondary rectal resection and 5 patients have been observed without recurrence. Of the 3 patients with known adenocarcinoma, there was one recurrence which was treated with a secondary curative rectal resection. CONCLUSIONS: TEM can access tumors in the whole rectum. Large tumors may be removed with low frequency of per- and postoperative complications and short hospital stay. TEM is highly useful for removal of rectal adenoma. A role for primary treatment of selected low-risk rectal cancers may emerge.

Monophasic and biphasic synovial sarcomas abundantly express cancer/testis antigen NY-ESO-1 but not MAGE-A1 or CT7.

Synovial sarcomas are high-grade malignant mesenchymal tumors with biphasic (BSS) and monophasic (MSS) variants that carry a pathognomonic cytogenetic alteration, t(X;18), involving the SYT gene on chromosome 18 and one of several SSX genes on chromosome X, usually SSX1 or SSX2. Cancer/testis (CT) antigens are expressed in a variety of malignant neoplasms but, in normal tissues, are restricted to male germ cells. Previous analysis revealed a high incidence and homogeneous expression of MAGE CT antigen in synovial sarcomas. The present study was performed to analyze the expression of 3 CT antigens, NY-ESO-1, MAGE-A1 and CT7, by immunohistochemistry with 3 monoclonal antibodies (MAbs), ES121 (anti-NY-ESO-1), MA454 (anti-MAGE-A1) and CT7-33 (anti-CT7), in 25 synovial sarcomas (12 MSS, 13 BSS) typed for the t(X;18)-derived fusion transcript by RT-PCR (19 SYT-SSX1, 6 SYT-SSX2). NY-ESO-1 immunoreactivity was found in 20/25 (80%) cases, and antigen expression was homogeneous in 14/20 NY-ESO-1-positive cases. Both morphologic variants and both translocation types were NY-ESO-1-positive, whereas 5 SYT-SSX1 tumors (1 MSS, 4 BSS) were NY-ESO-1-negative. MAb MA454 was immunoreactive with 4/25 cases (2 MSS, 2 BSS; 3 SYT-SSX1, 1 SYT-SSX2), and MAb CT7-33 was immunoreactive with only 2/25 cases (both BSS, SYT-SSX1). Expression of MAGE-A1 and CT7 was heterogeneous in all positive cases. Our study shows that NY-ESO-1 is highly expressed in a homogeneous pattern in synovial sarcomas of both morphologic variants and both translocation types, making these tumors an attractive target for NY-ESO-1 antigen-based immunotherapy.

Expression of melanocytic differentiation markers in malignant melanomas of the oral and sinonasal mucosa.

Malignant melanomas of the oral and sinonasal mucosa are rare tumors. Amelanotic variants can, on occasion, be difficult to recognize by routine light microscopy. Immunohistochemical studies may be needed for a final diagnosis. A number of new monoclonal antibodies to melanocytic differentiation antigens have been studied recently on primary cutaneous and metastatic melanoma. However, little is known about these antibodies for the diagnosis of mucosal melanomas. In this study the authors analyzed 79 oral and sinonasal mucosal melanomas of 65 patients. A total of 35 tumors originated from the oral mucosa (21 primary tumors, eight local recurrences, and six metastases) and 44 melanomas were from the sinonasal tract (27 primary tumors, nine local recurrences, and eight metastases). Immunohistochemical studies were performed on paraffin-embedded tissues, using the following antibodies: anti-S-100 protein, T311 (anti-tyrosinase), A103 (anti-Mart-1/Melan-A), D5 (antimicrophthalmia-associated transcription factor), and HMB-45 (anti-gp100). Of 35 oral mucosal tumors, 34 (97%) were positive with anti-S-100 protein, 33 (94%) with T311, 30 (85%) with A103, 26 (74%) with D5, and 25 (71%) with HMB-45. All five desmoplastic melanomas of the oral mucosa were positive for S-100 protein, four for tyrosinase, and one each for HMB-45 and A103. No desmoplastic melanoma was positive with D5. All 44 sinonasal melanomas were positive for tyrosinase and Mart-1/Melan-A (100%). Forty-three (98%) were positive with HMB-45, 42 (95%) with anti-S-100 protein, and 40 (91%) with D5. These results reveal that T311 is the most sensitive marker for sinonasal melanomas and closely approaches the sensitivity of anti-S-100 protein for oral mucosal melanomas. For desmoplastic mucosal tumors, anti-S-100 protein remains the most sensitive marker.

Immunohistochemical analysis of NY-ESO-1 antigen expression in normal and malignant human tissues.

NY-ESO-1, a member of the CT (cancer/testis) family of antigens, is expressed in normal testis and in a range of human tumor types. Knowledge of NY-ESO-1 expression has depended on RT-PCR detection of mRNA and there is a need for detecting NY-ESO-1 at the protein level. In the present study, a method for the immunochemical detection of NY-ESO-1 in paraffin-embedded tissues has been developed and used to define the expression pattern of NY-ESO-1 in normal tissues and in a panel of human tumors. No normal tissue other than testis showed NY-ESO-1 reactivity, and expression in testis was restricted to germ cells particularly spermatogonia. In human tumors, the frequency of NY-ESO-1 antigen expression corresponds with past analysis of NY-ESO-1 mRNA expression e.g., 20-30% of lung cancers, bladder cancers and melanoma, and no expression in colon and renal cancer. Co-typing of NY-ESO-1 antigen and mRNA expression in a large panel of lung cancers showed a good correlation. There is great variability in NY-ESO-1 expression in individual tumors, ranging from an infrequent homogeneous pattern of staining to highly heterogeneous antigen expression.

Immunohistochemical and reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction expression analysis of tyrosinase and microphthalmia-associated transcription factor in angiomyolipomas.

Angiomyolipomas (AMLs) show a characteristic immunoreactivity with melanocyte differentiation markers such as monoclonal antibody (mAb) HMB45, which detects melanocyte differentiation antigen gp100 and mAb A103 reacting with Melan-A/MART-1. Monoclonal antibody T311 to tyrosinase (a key enzyme of melanogenesis) and mAb D5 to the microphthalmia (Mitf) antigen are two newly available markers of melanocytic differentiation. The authors tested 15 AMLs with T311 and D5 by immunohistochemistry and a subset of 3 cases by reverse transcription-polymerase chain reaction for their expression of tyrosinase and Mitf mRNA. T311 showed poor sensitivity in AMLs because only focal staining was seen in 1 out of 15 cases, although tyrosinase mRNA was found in all tested cases. Mitf mRNA was present in 3 of 3 tested cases, and D5 was positive in 15 of 15 AMLs. However, D5 immunostaining often was focal and not as homogeneous as A103, which was analyzed in a previous study. D5 staining also could be seen in other cell types such as normal renal tubular cells, macrophages, and renal cell carcinoma. The current results show that in contrast with HMB45 and A103, T311 has little or no value in the diagnosis of AMLs. D5 may be useful in a panel of antibodies in the diagnosis of AMLs.

Analysis of microphthalmia transcription factor expression in normal tissues and tumors, and comparison of its expression with S-100 protein, gp100, and tyrosinase in desmoplastic malignant melanoma.

Microphthalmia transcription factor (Mitf) is a nuclear protein involved in the development of melanocytes and the regulation of melanin synthesis. Recent studies have suggested that Mitf may be a more sensitive and specific melanocyte marker than S-100 protein and gp100. However, there is insufficient knowledge on the specificity of Mitf, and a systematic examination of its use for the recognition of desmoplastic melanoma has not yet been performed. In this study, we compared the expression of Mitf with S-100 protein, gp100, and tyrosinase in 20 desmoplastic melanomas by using the antibodies D5 (anti-Mitf), anti-S100P, HMB-45 (anti-gp100), and T311 (anti-tyrosinase). All 20 melanomas were positive for S-100 protein, 7 were positive for Mitf, 6 for gp100, and 11 for tyrosinase. To examine the specificity of Mitf, a panel of normal tissue and 386 samples of miscellaneous tumors, including dermal and subcutaneous spindle cell lesions relevant for the differential diagnosis of desmoplastic melanoma, were examined by immunohistochemistry. Furthermore, normal tissue samples were tested for Mitf mRNA by reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (rt-PCR). Immunoreactivity for Mitf was seen not only in melanocytes of normal skin, but also in macrophages, lymphocytes, fibroblasts, Schwann cells, and smooth muscle cells at various sites, and tumors derived thereof. Our results indicate that the antibody D5 lacks sufficient sensitivity and specificity for widespread diagnostic use. Especially in re-excisions, when immunohistochemistry is often needed to distinguish an inflamed scar tissue from tumor, the presence of immunopositive inflammatory cells and fibroblasts limits the diagnostic use of D5.

Monoclonal antibody MA454 reveals a heterogeneous expression pattern of MAGE-1 antigen in formalin-fixed paraffin embedded lung tumours.

Cancer/testis (CT) antigens such as those encoded by the MAGE-gene family are expressed in a wide variety of malignant neoplasms. In normal tissues, expression is generally restricted to testis. Current knowledge of the expression pattern of CT antigens is mainly based on mRNA analysis. Little is known about actual protein expression. We previously developed MA454, a monoclonal antibody (mAb) to MAGE-1 recombinant protein. By employing antigen retrieval techniques, we show that MA454 is reactive on formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded tissues. Immunohistochemical (IHC) analysis of a normal tissue panel revealed staining solely in germ cells of testes. A series of 59 lung tumours was co-typed for MAGE-1 expression by RT-PCR and by immunohistochemistry with MA454. MA454 was positive in 19/59 cases (32%). MAGE-1 mRNA was found in 17 of the 54 cases (32%) available for RT-PCR. Of the 19 MA454-reactive tumours, 15 showed a highly heterogeneous pattern of expression. The other 4 MA454 positive cases revealed immunoreactivity in >25% of tumour areas. Of the 53 cases typed for both, mRNA and protein expression, 48 co-typed whereas 5 cases were discrepant, a likely consequence of heterogeneous MAGE-1 expression. The predominantly focal expression of MAGE-1 suggests that this antigen might not be sufficient as a sole target for immunotherapeutic approaches.

Xanthogranulomas with inconspicuous foam cells and giant cells mimicking malignant melanoma: a clinical, histologic, and immunohistochemical study of three cases.

Histiocytic proliferations can mimic melanocytic tumors and vice versa. The authors describe the clinical, histologic, and immunohistochemical findings of three predominantly mononuclear xanthogranulomas that were misdiagnosed as malignant melanoma by experienced pathologists. All lesions occurred in male patients ranging in age from 14 to 75 years. The tumors presented as dermal nodules, two of which were surrounded by an epidermal collarette and were ulcerated focally. The tumors were composed of a mixed population of large epithelioid and plump spindle cells with pink or pale cytoplasm arranged in nests and short fascicles. Occasional mononuclear cells had cytoplasmic vacuolar changes, but none had well-developed foamy cytoplasm. Rare, multinucleated giant cells were present, but they were not of the Touton type. Mitotic figures were found in all lesions. Immunohistochemically, most tumor cells (80%-90%) were strongly positive for CD68 and a minority of cells (10%-15%), located typically at the periphery of the tumor, was positive for factor XIIIa. Two tumors contained rare cells positive for S-100 protein (5% of tumor cells or less). All tumors were completely negative for tyrosinase (T311), gp100 (HMB-45), and Melan-A (A103). Giant and foam cell-poor variants of juvenile xanthogranuloma have been reported previously, mainly in young children. Their occurrence in adolescents and adults is underrecognized. Knowledge of this variant is important to avoid misdiagnosing a benign tumor as malignant melanoma.

Immunohistochemical distinction of epithelioid histiocytic proliferations from epithelioid melanocytic nevi.

Histiocytic tumors can be confused with melanocytic nevi and malignant melanoma and vice versa. To explore the use of immunohistochemistry for this diagnostic problem, we examined the expression of S-100 protein, gp100 (the antigen recognized by HMB-45), tyrosinase (T311), Melan-A (A103), Factor XIIIa (FXIIIa), and CD68 in 10 juvenile xanthogranulomas (JXGs), five epithelioid histiocytomas (EHs), and 15 melanocytic nevi composed of large epithelioid cells. All epithelioid melanocytic nevi were immunoreactive for Melan-A, tyrosinase, and S-100 protein in most melanocytes. Four nevi were completely negative with HMB-45. Nine nevi had only a minor HMB-45-positive component in the superficial dermis. Two nevi were diffusely HMB-45-positive. Melanocytes in all nevi were completely negative for FXIIIa. Thirteen nevi were completely negative for CD68. Two nevi contained rare cells with weak staining for CD68. All 15 histiocytic proliferations were completely negative for Melan-A, tyrosinase, and gp100. They lacked expression of S-100 protein or had at most 10% immunopositive cells. In JXGs, most cells were strongly reactive for CD68, although only a few were positive for FXIIIa. In EHs, 40% to 60% of cells were immunoreactive for FXIIIa, and only 20% to 30% were positive for CD68. Our results demonstrate that Melan-A and tyrosinase are sensitive and specific markers to distinguish epithelioid melanocytic nevi from epithelioid histiocytic tumors.